There you have it, not all women were excluded for all time before universal suffrage as you had claimed, neither were women prevented from owning property in their own name.
From the Parliament website@-
Another change brought by the 1832 Reform Act was the formal exclusion of women from voting in Parliamentary elections, as a voter was defined in the Act as a male person. Before 1832 there were occasional, although rare, instances of women voting.
So yes, prior to 1832 it was not an absolute as you point out. There were rare instances of women owning property and voting.
But they were rare.
So a statement that women could not vote prior to 1928 whilst not being strictly 100% accurate, is nevertheless supportive of the idea that women were excluded from voting because of their gender. Prior to 1832 very few women voted, then they were excluded for not being male. In 1918, laws were changed to allow some women to vote, but not on an equal basis with men. That point was reached in 1928.
I'm not sure what benefit or point there is to this discussion but it seems to me that the argument is we went from
- Some men allowed to vote but very few women able to
- All men allowed to vote but no women able to
- All men allowed to vote but some women able to
- Equality: All adults allowed to vote.
I think that supports the notion that women had to fight for voting equality amongst other things.
Women just now have to accept that they are no longer any different to men who can be women if they want to.