glasgowcyclist
Über Member
How can someone fear the immediate use of unlawful violence when "assailant" is not present and query even whether they ( the alleged assailant( "exist"
Look at the definition in English law of assault
"
An assault is any act (and not mere omission to act) by which a person intentionally or recklessly causes another to suffer or apprehend immediate unlawful violence."
Does apprehend in “… to suffer or apprehend…” not give some leeway for arguing that it meets the definition? To apprehend something is to perceive that it is about to happen. Being absorbed in a virtual reality situation could give the victim the perception, even mistakenly, that she is about to be assaulted. Does English law go on to define apprehension of assault or is it silent on that?
I don’t think in Scots law it would be entertained at all. As far as I recall the definition for assault was: “Any attack directed to take effect physically on the person of another, whether or not actual injury is inflicted.”
To me that doesn’t allow for the inclusion of any perception that an assault is about to take place. That’s an old definition though and things may have moved on.